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davidmccormick · #3 November 27th, 2008, 06:18 PM

I feel really stupid because your explanation is very clear but I don't follow....can you please explain why the derivative of $\frac{1}{r^x}$ is $\frac{-x}{r^{x+1}}$ because I make it out to be $-r^{-x}ln(r)$ . The second thing is the ratio test on $\frac{-x}{r^{x+1}}$ gives convergence, does that necessarily imply uniform convergence.
Sorry about this and thanks a lot