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Old June 7th, 2009, 08:01 PM
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Let's see... Reparametrize for arclength, and let the torsion \tau\neq 0. By continuity, \tau\neq 0 over an interval I.

If the Frenet-Serret frame is \{t,\eta,b\}, then b is also the position vector. We therefore have b''=k\eta, \ b'=-\tau\eta, \ 
 \eta'=-kt+\tau b where k is the curvature of a. These last equations give k\eta=(-\tau\eta)' or \eta'+\psi\eta=0, where \psi=1+\tau'/k.

This DE is linear and thus solvable throughout I. Solve to get \eta=ce^{\int\psi}, for some constant vector c. This means b'=c\int ke^{\int\psi}, and the parametrization gives |b'|=\left|c\int ke^{\int\psi}\right|=1, differentiating which gives ke^{\int\psi}=0. This implies k=0 over I, a contradiction as the curve lies on the sphere.
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