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Old June 14th, 2009, 09:24 PM
Chandru1 Chandru1 is offline
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The function f_{n}(x) can also be written as \displaystyle f_{n}(x)=1- \frac{1}{1+x^{2n}} . From here we see that \lim_{n \to \infty} f_{n}(x)=1 if x \neq 0 and \lim_{n \to \infty} f_{n}(x)=0 \ \textrm{if x=0}. As for the next part i think that I cannot contain x<0
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