Here is another simple proof of the nice theorem
(1) :
Denote

the complex conjugate of

. Then for any two functions
![f(x), g(x) \in \mathbb{C}[x] f(x), g(x) \in \mathbb{C}[x]](http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-help/latex2/img/bca4b7843327b4f1205304ca63d68a37-1.gif)
we have

.
This follows directly from the similar property of conjugation for elements of

and from the definition of a polynomial product.
Then

=

.
Hence

is its own conjugate, i.e.
![f(x)\overline{f(x)} \in \mathbb{R}[x] f(x)\overline{f(x)} \in \mathbb{R}[x]](http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-help/latex2/img/d8529303b3b9745cd03346a4ba766bed-1.gif)
.