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Old July 3rd, 2009, 10:03 PM
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Chris L T521 Chris L T521 is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by VonNemo19 View Post
Yeah, the codition a>0 says that, but f'(x)=2x, therefore f'(0)=2\cdot0=0\Rightarrow{a}=0. Mr. Fantastic understands better than I. I'm like you. I'd like to know what's going on here.
But note that \left(0,-a^2\right) never touches the parabola! As mr fantastic said, consider another arbitrary point \left(b,b^2\right). Find the slope of the tangent at x=b, and then use the point \left(0,-a^2\right) to construct the slope of the tangent line through that point and the equation of the tangent line (all in terms of a).
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