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Old July 4th, 2009, 10:09 AM
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Hello,

The cumulative density function of a Rayleigh distribution is (according to the wikipedia) :

\int_0^t f(x,\sigma) ~dx=1-\exp\left(\frac{-t^2}{2\sigma^2}\right)

So you actually have :

1-\exp\left(\frac{-th^2}{2\sigma^2}\right)=\frac{1}{1+X}

But it looks like you don't have the same definition of the Rayleigh distribution than the wikipedia...
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