Thread: Question 11
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Old July 9th, 2009, 08:09 PM
halbard halbard is offline
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Sorry, Bruno J., but how does x^2=y^2 imply that (xy^{-1})^2=1 without assuming that x^2y^{-2}=xy^{-1}xy^{-1}? That is, without assuming that xy^{-1}=y^{-1}x, i.e. that xy=yx?
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