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Old November 3rd, 2009, 04:10 AM
HallsofIvy HallsofIvy is offline
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Tonio was assuming that you knew that a function is differentiable at x= 0 if and only if \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(h)- f(0)}{h} exists. And that will be true if and only if \lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{f(h_n)- f(0)}{h_n} exists and is the same for all sequences \{h_n\} that converge to 0. Since a sequence will converge as long as subsequences converge, it is sufficient to consider sequences consistin only of rational numbers and only of irrational numbers.
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