Thread: is this true?
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Old November 6th, 2009, 11:39 AM
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Of course assuming that n\in\mathbb{N}. Otherwise, not so much. If you don't make that restriction you need to say that \cos(n\pi)=\mathfrak{R}\left((-1)^n\right) which is really just a highfalutin way to say \cos(n\pi). This is of course because (-1)^n=e^{\pi\cdot i\cdot n}=\cos(n\pi)+ i\sin(n\pi).
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