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Problem 40
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November 11th, 2007, 12:50 PM
Jhevon
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Quote:
Originally Posted by
ThePerfectHacker
You got the main part right! Weierstrass theorem is the secret trick here.
are you saying we should approximate f(x) - g(x) with some other polynomial, say h(x), and show that we must have h(x) = 0 ?
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