Thread: Problem 40
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Old November 11th, 2007, 01:56 PM
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Originally Posted by Jhevon View Post
are you saying we should approximate f(x) - g(x) with some other polynomial, say h(x), and show that we must have h(x) = 0 ?
Hint: If f(x) is continous on [0,1] then there exists a sequence of polynomial p_n(x) that converge uniformly to f(x). (That is the Stone-Weierstrass theorem).
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