Quote:
Originally Posted by PvtBillPilgrim  Is what you did correct?
f_n+1(x) - f_n(x) is decreasing (I believe). This should imply that (m_n) is decreasing. And it is bounded by [-1,0] so it must be convergent.
As n goes to infinity, f_n(x) goes to 1/(1-x) on (-1,0]. How do I find the limit A though (to what (m_n) converges)?
Thanks for your help. |
I make a minor mistake. I did it on the interval [0,1] you wanted on the interval [-1,0]. But can you use the same approach and do the problem yourself?