Thread: Problem 41
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Old November 21st, 2007, 10:42 AM
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Originally Posted by math sucks View Post
? I don't understand. How did you think that?
Maybe this will clarify,
f(1)=f\underbrace{\left(\frac{1}{n}+\ldots+\frac{1}{n}\right)}_{n \textnormal{\small{ times}}}=\underbrace{f\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\ldots f\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}_{n\textnormal{\small{ times}}}=f\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^n
The second equality is straight from the problem.
Sorry. Now I see what you are doing. My bad!

-Dan
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