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Old November 5th, 2009, 10:19 AM
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Default Cumulative distrubution function question

Can anyone provide any insight in how I could show the following (attached below)
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Old November 5th, 2009, 11:50 PM
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0\le nP(X>n) =n\int_n^{\infty}f(x)dx =\int_n^{\infty}nf(x)dx\le \int_n^{\infty}xf(x)dx\to 0

as n\to \infty since the first moment is finite.

Last edited by matheagle; November 7th, 2009 at 12:30 AM.
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Old November 6th, 2009, 11:54 AM
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Hello,

1-F(x)=P(X>n)=P(X\cdot \bold{1}_{X>n}>n)=P(Y_n>n)\leq \frac{E(Y_n)}{n} by Markov's inequality.
where Y_n=X\cdot \bold{1}_{X>n}
As n goes to infinity, Y_n obviously goes to 0 (X is almost surely finite since it's integrable)
and |Y_n| is bounded by |X|, which is integrable.
So we can apply the dominated convergence theorem, and we have n(1-F(x))\leq E(Y_n) \to 0  \quad \quad \square
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