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Old November 6th, 2009, 10:33 AM
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Default Integration/ Differentiation

Use the derivative of cosθ to show that d/dθ ( secθ)= secθ tan θ

attempt:

d/dθ( cosθ) = -sinθ
...
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Old November 6th, 2009, 10:39 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mathcalculator22122 View Post
Use the derivative of cosθ to show that d/dθ ( secθ)= secθ tan θ

attempt:

d/dθ( cosθ) = -sinθ
...
let's change \theta to x

\sec x=\frac{1}{\cos x}

Now use the quotient rule to take the derivative of both sides..
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Using elementary concubinary logic, you can easily show that the flumex is both semi-dependent and, even more importantly, quasi-invariant
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Old November 6th, 2009, 10:41 AM
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The best way to go about proving that is to use the quotient rule.

If f(x)=\frac{g(x)}{h(x)}, then f'(x)=\frac{g'(x)h(x)-g(x)h'(x)}{h(x)^2}

Plug in g(x)=1 and h(x)=cos(x)
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Old November 6th, 2009, 10:47 AM
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Just in case a picture helps...



... where



... is the chain rule. Straight continuous lines differentiate downwards (integrate up) with respect to x, and the straight dashed line similarly but with respect to the dashed balloon expression (the inner function of the composite which subject to the chain rule).




__________________________________________

Don't integrate - balloontegrate!

Balloon Calculus: Gallery

Balloon Calculus Drawing with LaTeX and Asymptote!
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Old November 6th, 2009, 10:50 AM
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that isn't quicker at all, because then you have to bring the powers back down into the denominator to realize you actually have sec and tan
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Using elementary concubinary logic, you can easily show that the flumex is both semi-dependent and, even more importantly, quasi-invariant
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Old November 6th, 2009, 11:13 AM
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Prettier though, surely! And how about this?

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Old November 6th, 2009, 01:43 PM
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I'm not saying it isnt valid or that you won't get the correct answer, but I can apply the chain rule without drawing circles and lines, and as such, it will be quicker
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Using elementary concubinary logic, you can easily show that the flumex is both semi-dependent and, even more importantly, quasi-invariant
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Old November 6th, 2009, 02:10 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by artvandalay11 View Post
I'm not saying it isnt valid or that you won't get the correct answer, but I can apply the chain rule without drawing circles and lines, and as such, it will be quicker
Yes, and it won't create that 'powers' problem, will it?

But now the goal posts have moved, let's not bicker... I may have provoked you in the first place by daring to introduce my pic with 'quicker by balloon!', which I edited out within the minute because I remembered that this is only true for quotients already having a power in the denominator - see http://www.ballooncalculus.org/examp...ence.html#quot if interested - hope so!

Cheers
Tom
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Old November 6th, 2009, 06:34 PM
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thanks for helping
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