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Old 09-04-2008, 08:45 PM
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Default [SOLVED] Integration by parts, evil arctan

\int x~arctan(7x)~dx

u= arctan(7x)

du= \frac {1}{1+49x^2}

dv= x~dx

v= \frac {x^2}{2}

This is where I am at so far:
x^2arctan(7x) - \frac {1}{2}\int \frac {x^2}{1+49x^2}
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Old 09-04-2008, 08:56 PM
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Use polynomial long division for the second integral. You will get 2 simpler integrals.
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Old 09-04-2008, 09:01 PM
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Or, if you want to do things quickly, pull 49 as a factor:
\frac{x^2}{49(\frac{1}{49} + x^2)}


Can you see how to simplify this quickly without resorting to long division? Hint: Add \frac{1}{49} and subtract \frac{1}{49} in the numerator.
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Old 09-05-2008, 12:02 AM
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We have only talked about the long division method, but I need a little help with the 2 other integrals. What will the other two integrals be?

So I see that after long division, I get 1/49, but unfortunately I don't really know what to do next.

\int \frac {1}{49} (1- \frac {x^2}{1+49x^2})

Is this correct? What is next?
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Old 09-05-2008, 12:09 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by redman223 View Post
\int \frac {1}{49} (1- \frac {\color{red}x^2}{1+49x^2})
That x^2 shouldn't be there. It's supposed to be:

\frac{1}{1+49x^2}

Once you figure that out, notice that:

\frac{1}{1+49x^2} = \frac{1}{1+(7x)^2}
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Old 09-05-2008, 12:31 AM
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\int \frac {1}{49} (1- \frac {1}{1+49x^2})

So what happens to the first part of the equation? With regards to the 1/49 and the 1-?
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Old 09-05-2008, 12:47 AM
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\int \frac {1}{49} (1- \frac {1}{1+49x^2}) can be split into:

= \int \frac {1}{49} - \frac{1}{49} \int \frac {1}{1+49x^2}

= \int \frac {1}{49} - \frac{1}{49} \int \frac {1}{1+(7x)^2}
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Old 09-05-2008, 12:49 AM
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it's \int \frac 1 {49}\left({1 - \frac {1}{1 + 49x}}\right) dx okay? So you can split it into two:

\int \frac 1 {49}\left({1 - \frac {1}{1 + 49x}}\right) dx = \int \frac 1 {49}\left({1}\right) dx  - \int \frac 1 {49}\left({\frac {1}{1 + 49x}}\right) dx
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Old 09-05-2008, 01:38 AM
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Thanks for clarifying that up for me. Now I can see a solution using u substitution.
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Old 09-05-2008, 02:06 AM
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Well I thought I did, but I guess not. I am stuck once again.

-\frac {1}{2}\int \frac {1}{49}~dx = -\frac {1}{2}(\frac {1}{49}x)

If thats the case, then
-\frac {1}{2}(\frac {1}{49}x - \frac {1}{49}\int \frac {1}{1+49x^2}~dx)

u= 7x
du= 7

So in order to get the 7 in there I have to multiply 1/49 by 1/7 in order to get 1/343 right? Then would the answer just be:

-\frac {1}{2}(\frac {arctan(7x)}{343})

for the last part of the equation?
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