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Old January 11th, 2009, 09:44 PM
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We know that there is only one linear fractional transformation that maps three given points z_1, z_2, z_3 to three specified points w_1, w_2, w_3. So the mapping \text{Im} \ z = 0 onto the circle |w| = 1 is uniquely determined if we choose the points (for example): z = 0, \ z = 1, \ z = \infty.



Why do we write w = e^{i \alpha} \frac{z-z_{0}}{z-z_{1}}. Where did the e^{i \alpha} come from?
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Old January 12th, 2009, 09:55 AM
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Consider the Mobius transformation T(z) = \frac{az+b}{cz+d} that maps Im(z) \geq 0 onto the circle |w| \leq 1. Note that T(z) maps Im(z) = 0 onto the circle |w| = 1.

Now choose an \alpha, where Im(\alpha) > 0 such that T(\alpha) = 0 or equivalently \frac{a\alpha+b}{c\alpha+d} = 0 \Rightarrow \alpha = -\frac{b}{a}.

Note that \overline{\alpha} is the inverse of \alpha with respect to the real axis. So 0 and T(\overline{\alpha}) must be inverses of each other with respect to |w| = 1. Hence T(\overline{\alpha}) = \infty or equivalently \frac{a\overline{\alpha}+b}{c\overline{\alpha}+d} = \infty \Rightarrow \overline{\alpha} = -\frac{d}{c}.

T(z) = \frac{az+b}{cz+d} = \frac{a}{c} \; \frac{z+\frac{b}{a}}{z+\frac{d}{c}} = \frac{a}{c} \; \frac{z-\alpha}{z-\overline{\alpha}}

When x \in \mathbb{R} \; \; |T(x)| = 1. Also notice that |x-\alpha| = |\overline{x-\alpha}| = |x-\overline{\alpha}| \Rightarrow \frac{|x-\alpha|}{|x-\overline{\alpha}|} =1. Therefore \left|\frac{a}{c}\right| = 1.

By converting \frac{a}{c} into polar coordinates, the above equality yields \frac{a}{c} = e^{i\beta}.

Therefore T(z) = e^{i\beta}  \frac{z-\alpha}{z-\overline{\alpha}}.



So notice that only two points were chosen to map the upper-half plane onto the unit disk and certain constraints were given to a third point but no third point was chosen explicitly, therefore it makes sense that there is not a unique solution to do this.

I hope this answers your question.

-Chip

Last edited by chiph588@; January 12th, 2009 at 10:14 AM. Reason: forgot to add something
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