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Old June 22nd, 2009, 06:45 AM
mei mei is offline
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Hey there!

I'm at a loss on how to solve this particular limit:


lim (1/(x-1))^(ln x)
x-> 1+

I have tried doing ln y = ln (1/(x-1))^(ln x)

and then I got to

lim ln x * ln (1/(x-1))
x->1+

I'm not quite sure how to get out of there. I tried using L'Hopital's rule but I think I must have done something wrong. I would like to know what's the best approach to solve such limits.

Thanks in advance for your help!
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  #2  
Old June 22nd, 2009, 07:25 AM
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Setting t=x-1 we obtain...

\lim_{x \rightarrow 1+} \frac{1}{(x-1)^{\ln x}} = \lim_{t \rightarrow 0+} e^{-\ln t \cdot \ln (1+t)} = \lim _{t \rightarrow 0+} e^{-\ln t \cdot \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n+1} \frac{t^{n}}{n}} = e^{-0} = 1

Kind regards

\chi \sigma
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Old June 22nd, 2009, 01:23 PM
mei mei is offline
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Thanks but can you explain something else to me? How did the ln(x) manage to get on the bottom part?
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Old June 22nd, 2009, 02:00 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mei View Post
Thanks but can you explain something else to me? How did the ln(x) manage to get on the bottom part?
Here's an example - \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3 = \frac{1}{2^3} .
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Old June 22nd, 2009, 02:23 PM
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I see... because 1 to the power of anything will always be 1!
Thank you so much! =)
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