Right now I'm studying the proof of the mean value theorem and ther's something about it that I am having trouble understanding.
I'm going to attemp to explain where I'm having trouble with the proof.
Refer to the attached figure during this discussion.
In the proof, the first thing that they do is say that the equation to the secant line is
I understand that
![\left[\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}\right] \left[\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}\right]](http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-help/latex2/img/749b55808d161e6db5f31df259d8f96b-1.gif)
is the slope of the secant line, but I can't understand the rest. My mind wants to say that

is x (in the slope intercept form of a line) and

.
Could someone justify this as best they can?
__________________
"Then thou carriedst thine ashes into the mountains:
wilt thou now carry thy fire into the valleys?"
Thus Spake Zarathustra
Friedrich Nietzsche
If you would like to know how the quadratic formula was derived, visit my post entitled:
Deriving the Quadratic Formula.
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