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Old November 3rd, 2009, 02:40 PM
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Default homomorphisms and basis

Let V be 3-dimensional, and f be a homomorphism on V such that f^3=0
but f^2\ne0. Let \vec b \in V such that f^2(\vec b)\ne0.

Show that <\vec b, f(\vec b), f^2(\vec b)> is a basis for V. Also find the matrix representing f with respect to this basis.


Now the first question is what does f^3=0 mean?
Is it that f(f(f(x)))=0 for all x (constant 0)? If so is it not correct to write f^3=\vec 0 ?
I have no idea how to start this one.
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  #2  
Old November 3rd, 2009, 03:49 PM
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Hello!

You have the right interpretation for the meaning of f^3. Perhaps an arrow above 0 would have been appropriate but it's not absolutely necessary.

To show that \{b, f(b), f^2(b)\} is a basis, we need to show that they are linearly independent. The statement will follow since the dimension of the vector space is 3. Suppose there are constants, not all 0, such that c_1b+c_2f(b)+c_3f^2(b)=0. First apply f^2 to both sides of this equation to show that we must have c_1=0; next apply f to both sides to show that c_2=0 also. What do you conclude?

By the way, to write \{\} in LaTeX, use \{ and \}.
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Old November 3rd, 2009, 04:54 PM
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Would I be correct then when I find the matrix representation of f with respect to that basis like this?

Determine the action of the map on the basis
\vec b \mapsto f(b), f(\vec b) \mapsto f^2(\vec b) and f^2(\vec b)\mapsto \vec 0. Hence the matrix is

f:
\begin{bmatrix}
0 & 0 & 0 \\
1 & 0 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0
\end{bmatrix}

Is this correct?
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Old November 3rd, 2009, 05:05 PM
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Yup that is good!
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