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Old October 28th, 2009, 09:12 PM
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Default Difference Operator and the falling factorial power of k

I have been able to show by algebraic manipulations that the when one applies the difference operator to "x to the n falling" one finds equality with n times x to the (n-1) falling.

I know that I have to use this now, but no matter how I try to manipulate the following expression, I can't get the result.

Prove that the sum from k=0 to (m-1) of k to the n falling is equal to m to the (n+1) falling all divided by (n+1)

I've realized that values where n is greater than or equal to m results in a sum of zero, and when n < m, the first n terms of the sum are zero. However, I can't seem to find where to best use the first statement or where I should be focusing my attention.
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Old October 30th, 2009, 12:27 PM
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Default Induction

So far, all of your observations are correct. Note to self: learn latex

To start, here are a few lemmas you will need, some of which you have already observed, others can be easily verified from the definition.

Def: (k)_n=x(x-1)(x-2)...(x-(n-1))
Lemma 1: (k)_n=0 if k<n
Lemma 2: (n)_n=n!
Lemma 3: (m)_{n+1}=(m-n)(m)_n
Lemma 4: (m+1)(m)_n=(m+1)_{n+1}

By lemma 1, \sum_{k=0}^{m-1}(k)_n=\sum_{k=n}^{m-1}(k)_n, and therefore m\geq n+1

Base case: Let m=n+1. Then the LHS is \sum_{k=0}^{m-1}(k)_n=\sum_{k=n}^{m-1}(k)_n=\sum_n^n(k)_n=(n)_n=n!.

The RHS is \frac{(m)_{n+1}}{n+1}=\frac{(n+1)_{n+1}}{n+1}=\frac{(n+1)!}{n+1}=n!. So LHS=RHS for our base case.

Inductive assumption: Suppose \sum_{k=0}^{m-1}(k)_n=\frac{(m)_{n+1}}{n+1} for some m\geq n+1

Inductive leap: We want to show that \sum_{k=0}^m(k)_n=\frac{(m+1)_{n+1}}{n+1}...

\sum_{k=0}^m (k)_n= (m)_n+\sum_{k=0}^{m-1}(k)_n= (m)_n+\frac{(m)_{n+1}}{n+1}= (inductive assumption)
\frac{(n+1)(m)_n+(m)_{n+1}}{n+1}= \frac{(n+1)(m)_n+(m-n)(m)_n}{n+1}= (lemma 3)
\frac{(m+1)(m)_n}{n+1}= \frac{(m+1)_n}{n+1} (lemma 4)

QED
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Last edited by Media_Man; October 30th, 2009 at 12:43 PM. Reason: cleaning up latex
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