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Old November 1st, 2009, 06:10 PM
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Default a^p=b^p mod p ==> a^p=b^p mod p^2

Show that a^p=b^p mod p ==> a^p=b^p mod p^2 (where p is prime).

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Old November 2nd, 2009, 05:45 AM
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First note that a^p\equiv{b^p}(\bmod.p) implies a\equiv{b}(\bmod.p) by Fermat's little Theorem.
Now, try using the binomial Theorem and note that \binom{p}{k}\equiv{0}(\bmod.p) for k=1,...,p-1
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