It holds for ; I'll let you prove that. Suppose it holds up to . Note that ; and by the induction hypothesis, is divisible by , and since is odd, is divisible by 2 so is divisible by .
The following users thank Bruno J. for this useful post:
Math Help Forum is a community of maths forums with an emphasis on maths help in all levels of mathematics. Register to post your math questions or just hang out and try some of our math games or visit the arcade.