Math Help Forum

Math Help Forum Feed Site Feed

Go Back   Math Help Forum > University Math Help > Number theory
Reply
 
Thread Tools Display Modes
  #1  
Old November 8th, 2009, 10:54 AM
Newbie
 
Join Date: Oct 2009
Location: In limbo
Posts: 18
Country:
Thanks: 7
Thanked 2 Times in 1 Post
comssa is on a distinguished road
Default Sum of reciprocals of phi(p)

Write \frac{1}{1} + \frac{1}{2} + ... + \frac{1}{p-1} = \frac{a}{b}, with gcd(a,b)=1. Show that p^2 divides a if p \geq 5

I have no clue how to express it as \frac{a}{b}.

Last edited by comssa; November 8th, 2009 at 11:32 AM.
Reply With Quote
Advertisement
 
  #2  
Old November 8th, 2009, 03:49 PM
MHF Contributor
 
Join Date: Oct 2009
Posts: 2,154
Thanks: 84
Thanked 805 Times in 751 Posts
tonio is a splendid one to beholdtonio is a splendid one to beholdtonio is a splendid one to beholdtonio is a splendid one to beholdtonio is a splendid one to beholdtonio is a splendid one to beholdtonio is a splendid one to behold
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by comssa View Post
Write \frac{1}{1} + \frac{1}{2} + ... + \frac{1}{p-1} = \frac{a}{b}, with gcd(a,b)=1. Show that p^2 divides a if p \geq 5

I see that \frac{1}{1} + \frac{1}{2} + ... + \frac{1}{p-1} = \frac{1}{\phi(2)} + \frac{1}{\phi(3)} + ... + \frac{1}{\phi(p)}
but I have no clue how to express it as \frac{a}{b}.

I can't understand what you think you can see here: 1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{p-1}\neq \frac{1}{\phi(2)}+\frac{1}{\phi(3)}+\frac{1}{\phi(4)}+...+\frac{1}{\phi(p)} , since, for example, \phi(4)=2\neq 3.

Anyway, and since p>2 , for simplicity of the proof we'll prove that in fact 2\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+...+\frac{1}{p-1}\right)\equiv 0\!\!\!\pmod {p^2}

Now, we can form pairs \frac{1}{i}\,,\,\frac{1}{p-i}\,,\,1\leq i\leq p-1\,\,and\,\,\frac{1}{i}+\frac{1}{p-i}=\frac{p}{i(p-i)} , so 2\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+...+\frac{1}{p-1}\right)=2\left(\frac{p}{1(p-1)}+\frac{p}{2(p-2)}+...+\frac{p}{\left(\frac{p-1}{2}\right)\left(\frac{p+1}{2}\right)}\right)=

=p\sum\limits_{i=1}^{p-1}\frac{1}{i(p-i)}=p\sum\limits_{i=1}^{p-1}\frac{1}{-i^2}\,\;since\,\;p-i\equiv -i\!\!\!\pmod p , so we have to prove this last sum is divisible by p (the minus sign never minds: we can take it out of the sum).

But \sum\limits_{i=1}^{p-1}\frac{1}{i^2}=\sum\limits_{i=1}^{p-1}i^2\!\!\!\pmod p as the only elements in \mathbb{Z}_p^{*} which are inverses to themselves are 1 and -1 and without these two we're left with an even number of

elements, from 2 to p-2 (and here enters the assumption p\geq 5!), where we can pair each one with its inverse. Now, the well-known formula

\sum\limits_{i=1}^{p-1}i^2=\frac{(p+1)(2p+1)}{6}p\, means the sum equals zero modulo p since, again, p is prime greater than 5. Q.E.D.

Tonio
Reply With Quote
The Following 3 Users Say Thank You to tonio For This Useful Post:
Donate to MHF
Reply

Thread Tools
Display Modes

Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off
Trackbacks are Off
Pingbacks are Off
Refbacks are Off
Forum Jump


All times are GMT -7. The time now is 05:34 PM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.7.3
Copyright ©2000 - 2010, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.
SEO by vBSEO 3.2.0 ©2008, Crawlability, Inc.
©2005 - 2009 Math Help Forum


Math Help Forum is a community of maths forums with an emphasis on maths help in all levels of mathematics.
Register to post your math questions or just hang out and try some of our math games or visit the arcade.