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November 21st, 2008, 04:01 PM
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| | f and g inverese of each other? am i doing this right or am i starting it the right way?
1st pic is the problem
2d and 3rd are what ive done | 
November 21st, 2008, 04:15 PM
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multiply numerator and denominator by  to clear the fractions ...
now ... you do ![g[f(x)] g[f(x)]](http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-help/latex2/img/b6b256ffe0a66f87c821c68b1e67258e-1.gif) , see if you get  . | | The following users thank skeeter for this useful post: | |  | 
November 21st, 2008, 06:30 PM
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| | how do I clear the fractions at the bottom
6/[(6+x)/(x)] -1
so if I get x for g it makes then inverse? | 
November 21st, 2008, 06:39 PM
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| | Quote:
Originally Posted by rj2001 how do I clear the fractions at the bottom
6/[(6+x)/(x)] -1 | Quote: |
so if I get x for g it makes then inverse?
| thought you already knew that ... if f[g(x)] = g[f(x)] = x, then f(x) and g(x) are inverses. | 
November 21st, 2008, 07:02 PM
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| | Could you just find the inverse of g(x) and show that it is f(x). It would be much quicker. | | The following users thank whipflip15 for this useful post: | |  | 
November 21st, 2008, 08:41 PM
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Originally Posted by whipflip15 Could you just find the inverse of g(x) and show that it is f(x). It would be much quicker. | Yes.
This is just another method to verify that two functions are inverses. | | The following users thank skeeter for this useful post: | |  | | Thread Tools | | | | Display Modes | Linear Mode |
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