My question is as follows:
Is this solution correct, or is it after adding up the two equalities still obvious to write two?
I hope you understand what I mean :]
u can try this LHS=[acos(x)+bsin(x)] dividing andd multiplying with
take [a^2+b^2]^(1/2)=k [acos(x)+bsin(x)]*k/k..(1)
when we take a/[a^2+b^2]^(1/2)=sin(y) we get b/[a^2+b^2]^(1/2)=cos(y) equation (1) than becomes k*(sin(x+y)) here -1=< sin(x+y) <=1 so -k<=LHS<=k thus proved
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